A week ago, I reported on what seemed to be a case of apparent statistical illiteracy. I have a question for my more statistically sophisticated readers.
The study in question appears to take into account the entire population of all Chrysler dealers. Is the p-value even meaningful in this case? Doesn't the p-value talk about sampling error? Under what circumstances is the p-value meaningful when applied to a population statistic, instead of a sample statistic? Should the population of Chrysler dealers be considered a sample of some larger population?